1. Using the Internet to reassemble buyers, sellers and other partners in a traditional supply chain in new ways best describes:
a. infomediation.
b. disintermediation.
c. hypermediation.
d. reintermediation.
2. The eBay e-business model provides a mechanism for bringing together buyers and sellers who would otherwise be unlikely to buy and sell goods in a very large marketplace. This is an example of which of the following:
a. infomediation.
b. disintermediation.
c. hypermediation.
d. reintermediation.
3. The application of IT in an appropriate and timely manner, in harmony with business goals, strategies, and needs best defines:
a. alignment.
b. enablers.
c. management.
d. controls.
4. Which of the following is considered a primary activity in Porter’s Value Chain model?
a. Firm infrastructure
b. Operations
c. Human resource management
d. Technology management
5. Each of the following represents a key element in the formulation of strategy except:
a. strategy.
b. inhibitors.
c. mission.
d. vision.
6. Which of the following is the best example of a strategic objective?
a. Support worldwide information requirements and business objectives.
b. Provide competitive advantage to the company.
c. We will drive or enable business strategies to ensure that our contributions
provide the highest value to the corporation.
d. Become #1 or #2 in every market we serve.
7. According to the Strategic Alignment Model, each of the following components is concerned with the external domain of IT strategy except:
a. scope of the firm’s technology.
b. systemic competencies.
c. IT processes.
d. IT governanceinfrastructure.
8. Which of the following frameworks addresses IT strategy by examining the focus of IT in organizations relative to strategic goals and effectiveness?
a. Framework for assessing the strategic importance of an IT system
b. Corporate goals for IT
c. Seven sources of innovation
d. Balanced scorecard
9. According to Porter’s Five Competitive Forces model, all of the following are considered external environmental forces except:
a. power of suppliers.
b. diversification of product/market.
c. substitute products/services.
d. power of buyers.
10. The following are all criteria of the Strategic Alignment Maturity assessment except:
a. Communications Maturity.
b. Scope and Architecture Maturity.
c. Governance Maturity.
d. Leadership Maturity.
11. Which one of the following is concerned with training, salary, performance feedback, and career opportunities?
a. Skills Maturity
b. Governance Maturity
c. Partnership Maturity
d. Communications Maturity
12. The Skills Maturity criterion includes all of the following except:
a. career crossover.
b. management style.
c. standards articulation.
d. cultural locus of power.
13. The primary objective of the strategic alignment maturity assessment is to help with the mutual understanding between IT and business executives with regards to all of the following except:
a. agreement that a criteria needs to be improved.
b. agreement that a good criteria can be better.
c. disagreement with how good or bad a criteria is.
d. disagreement with the specific maturity “number” they are at.
14. A management practice that firms use to facilitate knowledge sharing between business and IT functions best describes:
a. inter-unit liaison.
b. Delphi approach.
c. benchmarking
d. strategic planning.
15. Leveraging IT assets on an enterprise-wide basis and the focus of applications systems on driving business process enhancements to obtain sustainable competitive advantage best defines the:
a. Initial Process.
b. Committed Process.
c. Established Process.
d. Improved Process.
16. Which one of the following considers IT as a value center?
a. Initial Process
b. Committed Process
c. Established Process
d. Improved Process
17. According to the majority of both IS and non-IS executives surveyed by Luftman and Brier, which one of the following is considered the number one qualification for a CIO?:
a. kKnowledge of applying IT to business.
b. tTechnical awareness.
c. iInnovation.
d. gGeneral business knowledge.
18. Each of the following is considered a demonstrable belief in IT by the CEO except:
a. the CEO sends signals about the positive value of IT.
b. there is a core group of business priorities that drive the need for the continuous enhancement of the technology infrastructure.
c. there is a one-way relationship between the CEO and CIO whereby the CEO directs the CIO as to which technologies to invest in.
d. there is a context of change in the organization that supports the need for successful exploitation of technology.
19. Which of the following best describes the primary role of executive-level IT management?:
a. bBusiness partner
b. mManager entrepreneur
c. mMarketing
d. tTechnical
20. Each of the following IT processes is a strategic level process except:
a. business strategic planning.
b. architecture scanning and definition.
d. recruiting, hiring, and retention.
e. IT strategic planning and control.
21. Each of the following IT processes is a tactical level process except:
a. architecture scanning and definition.
b. application planning.
c. capacity planning and management.
d. project planning.
22. Each of the following IT processes is an operational level process except:
a. software development and upgrade.
b. service marketing.
c. capacity planning and management.
d. recruiting, hiring, and retention.
23. Which of the following best describes an operational level process?
a. Tuning and system balancing
b. Application planning
c. Capacity planning
d. Architecture scanning and definition
24. Which of the following best describes another view of the operational level processes?
a. Design of IT architecture
b. Business and IT vision
c. Delivery of IS services
d. Tactical level
25. Applications that are high on business impact and high on ease of execution best describes which category of the Application Prioritization Matrix?
a. Low-hanging fruit
b. Money pits
c. Must haves
d. Quick wins
26. Which of the following best describes an IT process that determines what the data needs will be for the applications that are proposed for implementation?
a. System planning
b. Network planning
c. Data planning
d. Project planning
27. A translation of the enterprise’s strategic goals and directions into a planned update of the enterprise’s hardware, systems software, network, and related IT infrastructure facilities in order to enable applications to meet strategic goals, best defines which of the following IT processes?
a. System planning
b. Network planning
c. Data planning
d. Project planning
28. Each of the following is a major task that must be completed when beginning to plan for recovery except:
a. consolidate the recovery requirements for all service agreements.
b. define the business and IT recovery-operating environment.
c. identify variances between operating environments and agreements
d. improve standards in development or maintenance of data.
29. Which of the following best describes the best way to start the development of an overall security plan?
a. Create and staff a formal IT management position that is exclusively focused on information security.
b. Examine the costs of replacing systems and applications.
c. Review those operational areas that have the greatest financial impact on the firm.
d. Look at the alternative ways to keep the systems and applications going in the event of a catastrophe.
30. Each of the following is a top ten factor that could trigger unethical employee behavior except:
a. genetic disposition.
b. little or no recognition of achievements.
c. efforts to balance work and family.
d. company politics.
On a serious note, do you attend Columbia? 
